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Post by Brad Lewis on Aug 1, 2007 18:41:28 GMT -5
If a man divorces his wife (except for the cause of fornication) what does he cause her (his wife) to do? Please post a) your source that you based your decision on and then b) your answer Brad
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Post by Scott Ross on Aug 1, 2007 23:04:06 GMT -5
a- My friends b- Badmouth me to them every chance she gets Scott
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Post by wanttobewithGod on Aug 2, 2007 4:11:19 GMT -5
LOL Scott...hehehe. Got a nice chuckle out of that...thanks M. added: serious topic, but funny answer!
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Post by ranman77007 on Aug 2, 2007 4:16:19 GMT -5
a) me b) have fun, and make me the happiest person in the world.
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Post by Brick on Aug 2, 2007 6:36:41 GMT -5
If a man divorces his wife (except for the cause of fornication) what does he cause her (his wife) to do? Source: Common sense Answer: Nothing. The question presumes that we are Reactive individuals when in reality, God made us Responsible. Read that word as two words. Response able. No one make us do anything. We choose our actions. The answer that you are seeking, I believe is what Jesus said about one who puts away his wife causes her to commit adultery. But is that an absolute truth? I, by my actions can cause another to sin? What about free will? If you do something to me, I MUST sin? Sorry. I don't buy that one. Me dear old mum was divorced but never committed adultery. I think if she can do it, others can too.
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Post by ranman77007 on Aug 2, 2007 7:05:55 GMT -5
can i get married before you go divorcin' me off? one thing at a time ! no..seriously, thats my bible study question.
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Post by Brad Lewis on Aug 3, 2007 0:31:08 GMT -5
a) Mat 5:32 But I say unto you, That whosoever shall put away his wife, saving for the cause of fornication, causeth her to commit adultery: and whosoever shall marry her that is divorced committeth adultery. b) He causes her to commit adultery Brad
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Post by Actually on Aug 3, 2007 4:32:45 GMT -5
Actually he does NOT cause her to commit adultery.
She can remain celibate after divorce and not commit adultery.
If she chooses to have sexual relations with another man, only THEN is she caused to commit adultery.
Brad misinformation again.
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Post by gloryintruth on Aug 3, 2007 6:04:58 GMT -5
[Actually Write] Actually he does NOT cause her to commit adultery. She can remain celibate after divorce and not commit adultery. If she chooses to have sexual relations with another man, only THEN is she caused to commit adultery. Brad misinformation again.
Thanks Actually. This is an absolutely correct interpretation and application of this passage of scripture, and one I wholeheartedly endorse.
In regards to Brad: I think people are beginning to realise that while he talks a lot about the Bible, and even reproduces entire slabs of text from the Good Book on this forum, his understanding is extremely limited. (Eg, His assertion that the statement "the Law is negative" is a lie - in direct contradiction of the many, many Pauline writings saying the exact opposite.)
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Post by reality on Aug 3, 2007 7:19:23 GMT -5
Actually he does NOT cause her to commit adultery. She can remain celibate after divorce and not commit adultery. If she chooses to have sexual relations with another man, only THEN is she caused to commit adultery. Brad misinformation again. So then there is error in the Bible?
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Post by Brad Lewis on Aug 3, 2007 21:41:09 GMT -5
Actually he does NOT cause her to commit adultery. She can remain celibate after divorce and not commit adultery. If she chooses to have sexual relations with another man, only THEN is she caused to commit adultery. Brad misinformation again. According to them! haaaaaaaaaaaaaaaa Here's more wackos saying Jesus Christ has made another mistake.
Glory in Puke has just found another fault with God.Brad
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Post by Brad Lewis on Aug 3, 2007 21:41:26 GMT -5
[Actually Write] Actually he does NOT cause her to commit adultery. She can remain celibate after divorce and not commit adultery. If she chooses to have sexual relations with another man, only THEN is she caused to commit adultery. Brad misinformation again.Thanks Actually. This is an absolutely correct interpretation and application of this passage of scripture, and one I wholeheartedly endorse. In regards to Brad: I think people are beginning to realise that while he talks a lot about the Bible, and even reproduces entire slabs of text from the Good Book on this forum, his understanding is extremely limited. (Eg, His assertion that the statement "the Law is negative" is a lie - in direct contradiction of the many, many Pauline writings saying the exact opposite.) According to them! haaaaaaaaaaaaaaaa Here's more wackos saying Jesus Christ has made another mistake.
Glory in Puke has just found another fault with God.Brad
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