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Post by StAnne on Jul 4, 2009 13:45:05 GMT -5
"It is quite unclear as to what the 'the breaking of bread' (that I presume you refer to as your feeling was the "ritual of the eucarest" (a la 2x2 and many others ) was refering to -- Actually the first clear description (that I have found) of the ritual as such is in the early Catholic church."/
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Post by responding on Aug 21, 2009 3:17:31 GMT -5
Do you also use unleavened bread as Jesus did? The breaking of bread is directly from part of the ritual in the Passover Seder. In fact it is quite amazing how the Jews take the Matzah (unleavened bread), from the centre of a tri-folded cloth, and break it.... According to the old Greek manuscripts, when Jesus broke bread after the last supper it was leavened bread (άρτος) (Matt. 26;26, Mark 14;22, Luke 22;19, I Cor. 10;16, 11;23) and not unleavened bread (άζυμος), which he would have used had they eaten the traditional Jewish passover. The very word άρτος itself means "raised", which implies yeast. For Greek speakers, άρτος does not mean άζυμος. The leaven would be taken away later that day during the Jews' preparation for the passover* (remember: sundown to sundown). * The high priests had not yet eaten the passover when Jesus stood before them (John 18;28). * Jesus was crucified on the preparation day, not the day of the feast (Matt. 26;5, 27;62, Mark 14;2, 15;42, Luke 23;54, John 19;14,31,42).
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Post by fred on Aug 21, 2009 8:05:22 GMT -5
Yes responding, you have the correct Greek word "artos" . However it also has the meaning of "bread of any kind". It is conceivable then that Mathew writing some 35-40 years after the event could have used this generic word to describe what went on.
Mathew 26:17 " Now the first day of the feast of unleavened bread the disciples came to Jesus saying unto him, Where wilt thou that we prepare for thee to eat the passover?"
Seems to me that they were to eat the passover meal with Jesus that evening.
The passover celebrations and the feast of unleavened bread had by this stage in history became one whole week of celebrations. I'm not sure if one specific day in that celebration was more "passover" than another day. Mmm....more study to do.
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Post by responding on Aug 21, 2009 17:18:29 GMT -5
fred, this 'first day of the feast of unleavened bread' in Mark's gospel is even more precise, adding the words "when they killed the passover". In other words it was the day of preparation (mentioned in all 4 gospels).
In the same chapter (Matt. 26), we have the word 'azimos' in v.17 as the Jewish tradition, and 'artos' in v.26 as the bread Jesus broke. Don't you think the 'azimos' would be baked the same day the lamb would be killed, on the day of preparation? (remember: sundown to sundown)
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Post by fred on Aug 21, 2009 18:08:11 GMT -5
responding, when the word 'azumos' is used in Mat 26:17, it is used with the article, in which case it signifies " the feast of unleavened bread". Thanks for your help............more to consider !
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